MRI Analysis
February 13th, 2007 |
Just got the analysis of the MRI this morning:
HISTORY: Several previous shoulder dislocations.
TECHNIQUE: Coronal T1, FSE T2, FSE T2 with fat sat. Sagittal FSE T2. Axial dual echo T2.
FINDINGS
OSSEOUS ACROMION OUTLET: The aromion is curved, type II. There is no anterior or lateral downsloping or evidence of subacromial spur. AC degenerative changes cause minimal narrowing the supraspinatus outlet.ROTATOR CUFF: Intact.
GLENOID LABRUM: There is abnormal signal throughout the anterior labrum at the base of the labrum with an extensive anterior labral tear associated with the history of previous recurrent dislocations. Posterior labrum is intact. There is abnormal signal at the base of the superior labrum as well and I suspect there may be a SLAP type component as well involving the superior and anterior labrum.
BICEPS TENDON: Intact.
OSSEOUS STRUCTURES AND CARTILAGINOUS SURFACES: There is a moderate-sized Hill-Sachs deformity with associated bone marrow edema in the posterior lateral aspect of the humeral head. Bone marrow signal is otherwise normal. Glenohumeral articular cartilage is intact.
ADDITIONAL FINDINGS: No joint effusion or subacromial or subdeltoid fluid.
IMPRESSION:
1. Hill-Sachs deformity with associated bone marrow edema.
2. Extensive labral tear involving the base of the labrum throughout the anterior labrum. There is also a superior labral tear associated with this.
3. No evidence of rotator cuff tear.
Hey, I am no expert, but this doesn’t sound real good to me…
A Hill-Sachs deformity is an indentation or groove on the head of the humerus arm bone which may occur after one episode of shoulder dislocation. This proves that I am not a liar, at least about the dislocation that is.
The Glenoid Labrum is ring of fibrous cartilage surrounding the end of the scapula where it meets the head of the humerus. Sounds like there are some problems with it.
OK web monkeys, what is the diagnosis? Surgery or physical therapy? We find out on February 22.
